Private Pilot Exam (PGL) Questions
1: What document(s) must be in your personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft while operating as pilot in command of an aircraft?
A: Certificates showing accomplishment of a checkout in the aircraft and a current biennial flight review.
B: A pilot certificate with an endorsement showing accomplishment of an annual flight review and a pilot logbook showing recency of experience.
C: An appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical certificate if required.
2: To act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider, a pilot is required to have made within the preceding 24 months
A: at least three flights as observer in a glider being towed by an aircraft.
B: at least three flights in a powered glider.
C: at least three actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified pilot.
3: Which best describes the flight conditions under which flight crewmembers are specifically required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened?
A: Safety belts during takeoff and landing; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing.
B: Safety belts during takeoff and landing; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing and while en route.
C: Safety belts during takeoff and landing and while en route; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing.
4: Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere?
A: An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.
B: An altitude of 500 feet above the surface and no closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.
C: An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet.
5: The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flights above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL in controlled airspace is
A: 1 mile.
B: 3 miles.
C: 5 miles.
6: For the aerotow of a glider that weighs 700 pounds, which towrope tensile strength would require the use of safety links at each end of the rope?
A: 850 pounds.
B: 1,040 pounds.
C: 1,450 pounds.
7: If the pitot tube and outside static vents become clogged, which instruments would be affected?
A: The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and turn-and-slip indicator.
B: The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator.
C: The altimeter, attitude indicator, and turn-and-slip indicator.
8: In the Northern Hemisphere, if an aircraft is accelerated or decelerated, the magnetic compass will normally indicate
A: a turn momentarily.
B: correctly when on a north or south heading.
C: a turn toward the south.
9: How many feet will a glider sink in 10 nautical miles if its lift/drag ratio is 23:1?
A: 2,400 feet.
B: 2,600 feet.
C: 4,300 feet.
10: At approximately what altitude above the surface would the pilot expect the base of cumuliform clouds if the surface air temperature is 82°F and the dewpoint is 38°F?
A: 9,000 feet AGL.
B: 10,000 feet AGL.
C: 11,000 feet AGL.
11: What conditions are necessary for the formation of thunderstorms?
A: High humidity, lifting force, and unstable conditions.
B: High humidity, high temperature, and cumulus clouds.
C: Lifting force, moist air, and extensive cloud cover.
12: Which type of weather briefing should a pilot request to supplement mass disseminated data?
A: An outlook briefing.
B: A supplemental briefing.
C: An abbreviated briefing.
13: Who is primarily responsible for maintaining an aircraft in airworthy condition?
A: Pilot-in-command.
B: Owner or operator.
C: Mechanic.
14: An indication that the glider has begun a turn too soon on aerotow is that the
A: glider’s nose is pulled to the outside of the turn.
B: towplane’s nose is pulled to the outside of the turn.
C: towplane will pitch up.
15: A pilot unintentionally enters a steep diving spiral to the left. What is the proper way to recover from this attitude without overstressing the glider?
A: Apply up-elevator pressure to raise the nose.
B: Apply more up-elevator pressure and then use right aileron pressure to control the overbanking tendency.
C: Relax the back pressure and shallow the bank; then apply up-elevator pressure until the nose has been raised to the desired position.
16. When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, what is the purpose of the taxiway directional sign?
A: Indicates direction to take-off runway.
B: Indicates designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway.
C: Indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection.
ANSWERS TO PRIVATE PILOT GLIDER QUESTIONS
1-C, 2-C, 3-C, 4-A, 5-C, 6-C, 7-B, 8-B, 9-B, 10-B, 11-A, 12-C, 13-B, 14-B, 15. C, 16-C
1: What document(s) must be in your personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft while operating as pilot in command of an aircraft?
A: Certificates showing accomplishment of a checkout in the aircraft and a current biennial flight review.
B: A pilot certificate with an endorsement showing accomplishment of an annual flight review and a pilot logbook showing recency of experience.
C: An appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical certificate if required.
2: To act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider, a pilot is required to have made within the preceding 24 months
A: at least three flights as observer in a glider being towed by an aircraft.
B: at least three flights in a powered glider.
C: at least three actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified pilot.
3: Which best describes the flight conditions under which flight crewmembers are specifically required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened?
A: Safety belts during takeoff and landing; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing.
B: Safety belts during takeoff and landing; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing and while en route.
C: Safety belts during takeoff and landing and while en route; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing.
4: Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere?
A: An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.
B: An altitude of 500 feet above the surface and no closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.
C: An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet.
5: The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flights above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL in controlled airspace is
A: 1 mile.
B: 3 miles.
C: 5 miles.
6: For the aerotow of a glider that weighs 700 pounds, which towrope tensile strength would require the use of safety links at each end of the rope?
A: 850 pounds.
B: 1,040 pounds.
C: 1,450 pounds.
7: If the pitot tube and outside static vents become clogged, which instruments would be affected?
A: The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and turn-and-slip indicator.
B: The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator.
C: The altimeter, attitude indicator, and turn-and-slip indicator.
8: In the Northern Hemisphere, if an aircraft is accelerated or decelerated, the magnetic compass will normally indicate
A: a turn momentarily.
B: correctly when on a north or south heading.
C: a turn toward the south.
9: How many feet will a glider sink in 10 nautical miles if its lift/drag ratio is 23:1?
A: 2,400 feet.
B: 2,600 feet.
C: 4,300 feet.
10: At approximately what altitude above the surface would the pilot expect the base of cumuliform clouds if the surface air temperature is 82°F and the dewpoint is 38°F?
A: 9,000 feet AGL.
B: 10,000 feet AGL.
C: 11,000 feet AGL.
11: What conditions are necessary for the formation of thunderstorms?
A: High humidity, lifting force, and unstable conditions.
B: High humidity, high temperature, and cumulus clouds.
C: Lifting force, moist air, and extensive cloud cover.
12: Which type of weather briefing should a pilot request to supplement mass disseminated data?
A: An outlook briefing.
B: A supplemental briefing.
C: An abbreviated briefing.
13: Who is primarily responsible for maintaining an aircraft in airworthy condition?
A: Pilot-in-command.
B: Owner or operator.
C: Mechanic.
14: An indication that the glider has begun a turn too soon on aerotow is that the
A: glider’s nose is pulled to the outside of the turn.
B: towplane’s nose is pulled to the outside of the turn.
C: towplane will pitch up.
15: A pilot unintentionally enters a steep diving spiral to the left. What is the proper way to recover from this attitude without overstressing the glider?
A: Apply up-elevator pressure to raise the nose.
B: Apply more up-elevator pressure and then use right aileron pressure to control the overbanking tendency.
C: Relax the back pressure and shallow the bank; then apply up-elevator pressure until the nose has been raised to the desired position.
16. When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, what is the purpose of the taxiway directional sign?
A: Indicates direction to take-off runway.
B: Indicates designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway.
C: Indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection.
ANSWERS TO PRIVATE PILOT GLIDER QUESTIONS
1-C, 2-C, 3-C, 4-A, 5-C, 6-C, 7-B, 8-B, 9-B, 10-B, 11-A, 12-C, 13-B, 14-B, 15. C, 16-C
Commercial Pilot Exam (CGX) Questions
1. Terminal Aerodrome Forecasts (TAF) are issued how many times a day and cover what period of time?
A: Six times daily and are usually valid for a 24 hour period including a 4-hour categorical outlook.
B: Four times daily and are usually valid for a 24 hour period.
C: Four times daily and are valid for 12 hours including a 6-hour categorical outlook.
2. To use VHF/DF facilities for assistance in locating your position, you must have an operative VHF
A: transmitter and receiver.
B: transmitter and receiver, and an operative ADF receiver.
C: transmitter and receiver, and an operative VOR receiver
3. How should the pilot make a VOR receiver check when the aircraft is located on the designated checkpoint on the airport surface?
A: Set the OBS on 180° plus or minus 4°; the CDI should center with a FROM indication.
B: Set the OBS on the designated radial. The CDI must center within plus or minus 4° of that radial with a FROM indication.
C: With the aircraft headed directly toward the VOR and the OBS set to 000°, the CDI should center within plus or minus 4° of that radial with a TO indication.
4. Which of the following is the first step of the Decide Model for effective risk management and Aeronautical Decision Making?
A: Detect.
B: Identify.
C: Evaluate.
5. To stop pitch oscillation during a winch launch, the pilot should
A: increase the back pressure on the control stick and steepen the angle of climb.
B: relax the back pressure on the control stick and shallow the angle of climb.
C: extend and retract the spoilers several times until the oscillations subside.
6. Which is true regarding the direction in which turns should be made during slope soaring?
A: All reversing turns should be made to the left.
B: All reversing turns should be made into the wind away from the slope.
C: The upwind turn should be made to the left; the downwind turn should be made to the right.
7. GIVEN: Glider’s max auto/winch tow speed - 66 MPH. Surface wind (direct headwind) - 5 MPH. Wind gradient - 4 MPH. When the glider reaches an altitude of 200 feet the auto/winch speed should be
A: 42 MPH.
B: 46 MPH.
C: 56 MPH.
8. Which is true regarding the use of glider tow hooks?
A: The use of a CG hook for auto or winch tows allows the sailplane greater altitude for a given line length.
B: The use of a CG hook for aerotows allows better directional control at the start of the launch than the use of a nose hook.
C: The use of a nose hook for an auto or winch launch reduces structural loading on the tail assembly compared to the use of a CG hook.
9. Which is true regarding the effect on a glider’s performance by the addition of ballast or weight?
A: The glide ratio at a given airspeed will increase.
B: The heavier the glider is loaded, the less the glide ratio will be at all airspeeds.
C: A higher airspeed is required to obtain the same glide ratio as when lightly loaded.
10. When flying into a headwind, penetrating speed is the glider’s
A: speed-to-fly.
B: minimum sink speed.
C: speed-to-fly plus half the estimated wind velocity.
ANSWERS TO COMMERCIAL QUESTIONS: 1-B, 2-A, 3-B, 4-A, 5-B, 6B, 7-A, 8-A, 9-C, 10-C
1. Terminal Aerodrome Forecasts (TAF) are issued how many times a day and cover what period of time?
A: Six times daily and are usually valid for a 24 hour period including a 4-hour categorical outlook.
B: Four times daily and are usually valid for a 24 hour period.
C: Four times daily and are valid for 12 hours including a 6-hour categorical outlook.
2. To use VHF/DF facilities for assistance in locating your position, you must have an operative VHF
A: transmitter and receiver.
B: transmitter and receiver, and an operative ADF receiver.
C: transmitter and receiver, and an operative VOR receiver
3. How should the pilot make a VOR receiver check when the aircraft is located on the designated checkpoint on the airport surface?
A: Set the OBS on 180° plus or minus 4°; the CDI should center with a FROM indication.
B: Set the OBS on the designated radial. The CDI must center within plus or minus 4° of that radial with a FROM indication.
C: With the aircraft headed directly toward the VOR and the OBS set to 000°, the CDI should center within plus or minus 4° of that radial with a TO indication.
4. Which of the following is the first step of the Decide Model for effective risk management and Aeronautical Decision Making?
A: Detect.
B: Identify.
C: Evaluate.
5. To stop pitch oscillation during a winch launch, the pilot should
A: increase the back pressure on the control stick and steepen the angle of climb.
B: relax the back pressure on the control stick and shallow the angle of climb.
C: extend and retract the spoilers several times until the oscillations subside.
6. Which is true regarding the direction in which turns should be made during slope soaring?
A: All reversing turns should be made to the left.
B: All reversing turns should be made into the wind away from the slope.
C: The upwind turn should be made to the left; the downwind turn should be made to the right.
7. GIVEN: Glider’s max auto/winch tow speed - 66 MPH. Surface wind (direct headwind) - 5 MPH. Wind gradient - 4 MPH. When the glider reaches an altitude of 200 feet the auto/winch speed should be
A: 42 MPH.
B: 46 MPH.
C: 56 MPH.
8. Which is true regarding the use of glider tow hooks?
A: The use of a CG hook for auto or winch tows allows the sailplane greater altitude for a given line length.
B: The use of a CG hook for aerotows allows better directional control at the start of the launch than the use of a nose hook.
C: The use of a nose hook for an auto or winch launch reduces structural loading on the tail assembly compared to the use of a CG hook.
9. Which is true regarding the effect on a glider’s performance by the addition of ballast or weight?
A: The glide ratio at a given airspeed will increase.
B: The heavier the glider is loaded, the less the glide ratio will be at all airspeeds.
C: A higher airspeed is required to obtain the same glide ratio as when lightly loaded.
10. When flying into a headwind, penetrating speed is the glider’s
A: speed-to-fly.
B: minimum sink speed.
C: speed-to-fly plus half the estimated wind velocity.
ANSWERS TO COMMERCIAL QUESTIONS: 1-B, 2-A, 3-B, 4-A, 5-B, 6B, 7-A, 8-A, 9-C, 10-C
FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR GLIDER (FIG) QUESTIONS
1- Why does increasing speed also increase lift?
A- The increased velocity of the relative wind overcomes the increased drag.
B- The increased impact of the relative wind on an airfoil's lower surface creates a greater amount of air being deflected downward.
C- The increased speed of the air passing over an airfoil's upper surface increases the pressure, thus creating a greater pressure differential between the upper and lower surface.
2- Which statement is true concerning the aerodynamic conditions which occur during a spin entry?
A- After a full stall, both wings remain in a stalled condition throughout the rotation.
B- After a partial stall, the wing that drops remains in a stalled condition while the rising wing regains and continues to produce lift, causing the rotation.
C- After a full stall, the wing that drops continues in a stalled condition while the rising wing regains and continues to produce some lift, causing the rotation.
3- Changes in the center of pressure of a wing affect the aircraft's
A- lift/drag ratio.
B- lifting capacity.
C- aerodynamic balance and controllability.
4- Winds at 5,000 feet AGL on a particular flight are southwesterly while most of the surface winds are southerly. This difference in direction is primarily due to
A- local terrain effects on pressure.
B- stronger Coriolis force at the surface.
C- friction between the wind and the surface.
5- From which measurement of the atmosphere can stability be determined?
A- Ambient lapse rate.
B- Atmospheric pressure.
C- Difference between standard temperature and surface temperature.
6- With respect to advection fog, which statement is true?
A- It forms almost exclusively at night or near daybreak.
B- It forms when unstable air is cooled adiabatically.
C- It can appear suddenly during day or night, and it is more persistent than radiation fog.
7- When a control tower, located on an airport within Class D airspace ceases operation for the day, what happens to the airspace designation?
A- The airspace designation normally will not change.
B- The airspace remains Class D airspace as long as a weather observer or automated weather system is available.
C- The airspace reverts to Class E or a combination of Class E and G airspace during the hours the tower is not in operation.
8- If a military training route has flights operating at or below 1,500 feet AGL, it will be designated by
A- VR and a three digit number only.
B- IR or VR and a four digit number.
C- IR or VR and a three digit number.
9- What is the duration of a Flight Instructor Certificate?
A- Indefinite, unless suspended or revoked.
B- 24 months after the month in which it was issued or renewed.
C- Indefinite, as long as the holder has a current pilot and medical certificate appropriate to the pilot privileges being exercised.
10- A written statement from an authorized instructor certifying that an applicant has received the required training in preparation for a practical test must be dated within how many days preceding the date of application?
A- 60
B- 90
C- 120
11- Which training time must be certified by the instructor from whom it was received?
A- Flight training.
B- Flight training and training in a flight training device.
C- All flight training, flight simulator training, and ground training.
12- What requirement(s) must an authorized instructor meet in order to prepare a glider applicant for an initial Flight Instructor Certificate rating?
A- Held a Flight Instructor Certificate for 24 months or given 200 hours of flight training.
B- Held a Flight Instructor Certificate for 12 months and given a minimum of 80 hours of training.
C- Held a Flight Instructor Certificate for at least 24 months and given a minimum of 80 hours of glider training.
13- The preflight action required by regulations relative to alternatives available, if the planned flight cannot be completed, is applicable to
A- IFR flights only.
B- any flight not in the vicinity of an airport.
C- any flight conducted for hire or compensation.
14-With respect to using the weight information given in a typical aircraft owner’s manual for computing
gross weight, it is important to know that if items have been installed in the aircraft in addition to the
original equipment, the
A— allowable useful load is decreased.
B— allowable useful load remains unchanged.
C— maximum allowable gross weight is increased.
15-When exiting the runway, what is the purpose of the runway exit sign?
A— Indicates designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway.
B— Indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection.
C— Indicates direction to take-off runway.
ANSWERS TO FIG QUESTIONS 1-B, 2-C, 3-C, 4-C, 5-A, 6-C, 7-C, 8-B, 9-B, 10-A, 11-C, 12-C, 13-B, 14-A, 15-A
1- Why does increasing speed also increase lift?
A- The increased velocity of the relative wind overcomes the increased drag.
B- The increased impact of the relative wind on an airfoil's lower surface creates a greater amount of air being deflected downward.
C- The increased speed of the air passing over an airfoil's upper surface increases the pressure, thus creating a greater pressure differential between the upper and lower surface.
2- Which statement is true concerning the aerodynamic conditions which occur during a spin entry?
A- After a full stall, both wings remain in a stalled condition throughout the rotation.
B- After a partial stall, the wing that drops remains in a stalled condition while the rising wing regains and continues to produce lift, causing the rotation.
C- After a full stall, the wing that drops continues in a stalled condition while the rising wing regains and continues to produce some lift, causing the rotation.
3- Changes in the center of pressure of a wing affect the aircraft's
A- lift/drag ratio.
B- lifting capacity.
C- aerodynamic balance and controllability.
4- Winds at 5,000 feet AGL on a particular flight are southwesterly while most of the surface winds are southerly. This difference in direction is primarily due to
A- local terrain effects on pressure.
B- stronger Coriolis force at the surface.
C- friction between the wind and the surface.
5- From which measurement of the atmosphere can stability be determined?
A- Ambient lapse rate.
B- Atmospheric pressure.
C- Difference between standard temperature and surface temperature.
6- With respect to advection fog, which statement is true?
A- It forms almost exclusively at night or near daybreak.
B- It forms when unstable air is cooled adiabatically.
C- It can appear suddenly during day or night, and it is more persistent than radiation fog.
7- When a control tower, located on an airport within Class D airspace ceases operation for the day, what happens to the airspace designation?
A- The airspace designation normally will not change.
B- The airspace remains Class D airspace as long as a weather observer or automated weather system is available.
C- The airspace reverts to Class E or a combination of Class E and G airspace during the hours the tower is not in operation.
8- If a military training route has flights operating at or below 1,500 feet AGL, it will be designated by
A- VR and a three digit number only.
B- IR or VR and a four digit number.
C- IR or VR and a three digit number.
9- What is the duration of a Flight Instructor Certificate?
A- Indefinite, unless suspended or revoked.
B- 24 months after the month in which it was issued or renewed.
C- Indefinite, as long as the holder has a current pilot and medical certificate appropriate to the pilot privileges being exercised.
10- A written statement from an authorized instructor certifying that an applicant has received the required training in preparation for a practical test must be dated within how many days preceding the date of application?
A- 60
B- 90
C- 120
11- Which training time must be certified by the instructor from whom it was received?
A- Flight training.
B- Flight training and training in a flight training device.
C- All flight training, flight simulator training, and ground training.
12- What requirement(s) must an authorized instructor meet in order to prepare a glider applicant for an initial Flight Instructor Certificate rating?
A- Held a Flight Instructor Certificate for 24 months or given 200 hours of flight training.
B- Held a Flight Instructor Certificate for 12 months and given a minimum of 80 hours of training.
C- Held a Flight Instructor Certificate for at least 24 months and given a minimum of 80 hours of glider training.
13- The preflight action required by regulations relative to alternatives available, if the planned flight cannot be completed, is applicable to
A- IFR flights only.
B- any flight not in the vicinity of an airport.
C- any flight conducted for hire or compensation.
14-With respect to using the weight information given in a typical aircraft owner’s manual for computing
gross weight, it is important to know that if items have been installed in the aircraft in addition to the
original equipment, the
A— allowable useful load is decreased.
B— allowable useful load remains unchanged.
C— maximum allowable gross weight is increased.
15-When exiting the runway, what is the purpose of the runway exit sign?
A— Indicates designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway.
B— Indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection.
C— Indicates direction to take-off runway.
ANSWERS TO FIG QUESTIONS 1-B, 2-C, 3-C, 4-C, 5-A, 6-C, 7-C, 8-B, 9-B, 10-A, 11-C, 12-C, 13-B, 14-A, 15-A
FUNDAMENTAL OF INSTRUCTION (FOI) QUESTIONS
This exam is required for the initial flight instructor certificate in addition to the knowledge exam pertaining to gliders, airplanes, etc. Most pilots find it difficult, as its more about learning theory than flying. Recently the FAA introduced 60 new questions. The majority of those taking the exam after these questions were introduced failed the exam. We have all questions covered in our FOI exam guide.
Here are a few of the new questions.
1. Which type of assessment is desirable for evaluating a student’s ability to use critical thinking skills in performing real-world tasks?
A— Authentic assessment.
B— Traditional assessment.
C— Practical assessment.
2. The instructor can counteract anxiety in students by
A— teaching students to cope with their fears.
B— avoiding anxiety-causing lessons.
C— explaining how these maneuvers are necessary for safe flight.
3. How does a student who is responding abnormally react to stress?
A— Inadequate or completely absent response.
B— By responding rapidly and exactly often automatically within the limits of their experience.
C— Slow learning.
4. Which would most likely be an indication that a student is reacting normally to stress?
A— Slow learning.
B— Inappropriate laughter or singing.
C— Automatic response to a given situation.
5. A student demonstrates a specific flight maneuver correctly; however, the instructor believes the student does not understand the fundamentals of the maneuver. What should the instructor do?
A— Ask the student to orally explain the maneuver.
B— Ask the student to demonstrate a different maneuver which uses the same fundamentals.
C— Ask the student to demonstrate the same maneuver again.
6. Which of the following is a risk element of ADM?
A— The aircraft.
B— The amount of fuel on board.
C— Any passengers.
7. If a pilot wants to mitigate risk during a cross-country flight in marginal VFR conditions, the pilot could
A— take a pilot who is IFR-rated.
B— continue the flight as planned.
C— stay out of controlled airspace.
8. A pilot’s experience in direct crosswinds greater than 10 knots is an example of which of the fundamental risk elements?
A— The aircraft.
B— The pilot in command.
C— The external pressures.
9. A method for correcting student impatience is for the instructor to
A— present the necessary preliminary training one step at a time, with clearly stated goals for each step.
B— key the instruction to use the interests and enthusiasm students bring with them.
C— avoid assigning impossible or unreasonable goals for the student to accomplish.
10. The accurate perception and understanding of all the factors and conditions within the four fundamental risk elements that affect safety is called
A— aeronautical decision making.
B— Single Pilot Resource Management.
C— situational awareness.
11. Performance-based objectives consist of which elements?
A— Flight training scenarios, judgment assessment, and maneuver assessment.
B— Cognitive skills, affective skills, and psychomotor skills.
C— Description of the skill or behavior, conditions, and criteria.
ANSWERS TO FOI QUESTIONS 1-A, 2-A, 3-A, 4-C, 5-B, 6-A, 7-A, 8-B, 9-A , 10-C, 11-C
This exam is required for the initial flight instructor certificate in addition to the knowledge exam pertaining to gliders, airplanes, etc. Most pilots find it difficult, as its more about learning theory than flying. Recently the FAA introduced 60 new questions. The majority of those taking the exam after these questions were introduced failed the exam. We have all questions covered in our FOI exam guide.
Here are a few of the new questions.
1. Which type of assessment is desirable for evaluating a student’s ability to use critical thinking skills in performing real-world tasks?
A— Authentic assessment.
B— Traditional assessment.
C— Practical assessment.
2. The instructor can counteract anxiety in students by
A— teaching students to cope with their fears.
B— avoiding anxiety-causing lessons.
C— explaining how these maneuvers are necessary for safe flight.
3. How does a student who is responding abnormally react to stress?
A— Inadequate or completely absent response.
B— By responding rapidly and exactly often automatically within the limits of their experience.
C— Slow learning.
4. Which would most likely be an indication that a student is reacting normally to stress?
A— Slow learning.
B— Inappropriate laughter or singing.
C— Automatic response to a given situation.
5. A student demonstrates a specific flight maneuver correctly; however, the instructor believes the student does not understand the fundamentals of the maneuver. What should the instructor do?
A— Ask the student to orally explain the maneuver.
B— Ask the student to demonstrate a different maneuver which uses the same fundamentals.
C— Ask the student to demonstrate the same maneuver again.
6. Which of the following is a risk element of ADM?
A— The aircraft.
B— The amount of fuel on board.
C— Any passengers.
7. If a pilot wants to mitigate risk during a cross-country flight in marginal VFR conditions, the pilot could
A— take a pilot who is IFR-rated.
B— continue the flight as planned.
C— stay out of controlled airspace.
8. A pilot’s experience in direct crosswinds greater than 10 knots is an example of which of the fundamental risk elements?
A— The aircraft.
B— The pilot in command.
C— The external pressures.
9. A method for correcting student impatience is for the instructor to
A— present the necessary preliminary training one step at a time, with clearly stated goals for each step.
B— key the instruction to use the interests and enthusiasm students bring with them.
C— avoid assigning impossible or unreasonable goals for the student to accomplish.
10. The accurate perception and understanding of all the factors and conditions within the four fundamental risk elements that affect safety is called
A— aeronautical decision making.
B— Single Pilot Resource Management.
C— situational awareness.
11. Performance-based objectives consist of which elements?
A— Flight training scenarios, judgment assessment, and maneuver assessment.
B— Cognitive skills, affective skills, and psychomotor skills.
C— Description of the skill or behavior, conditions, and criteria.
ANSWERS TO FOI QUESTIONS 1-A, 2-A, 3-A, 4-C, 5-B, 6-A, 7-A, 8-B, 9-A , 10-C, 11-C
.